All of this talk about "standing" may be technically true, but the Texas plus 18 case needs to be heard.  In other words, who in the world is going to comment on violation of state laws?  Where does a state go to hold another state accountable for violating election laws?

No one seems to dispute that a governor went around state laws to mail out unsolicited ballots to citizens or another one unilaterally extended deadlines.  This is a violation of state law and it involved the election of U.S. president.

Please consider this from Roger Kimball:

There is, however, this to consider. 

The 'conservative' states endeavor to make elections fair by taking steps to identify legal voters and ensure that the votes that are tallied are legitimate. 

The 'progressive' states endeavor to achieve their desired electoral result by ballot harvesting, softening voter ID rules, and generally looking the other way so long as the right (meaning the left) lever is pulled. 

I am not sure how an umpire should act when one side tries to play by the rules while the other tries to subvert the rules. 

What, then, is fair?

It's not about fairness.  It is about the law.

Yes, we voted by the rules here in Texas.  I voted early and in person.  My 91-year old mother requested a ballot and voted absentee.  In both cases, we observed the law.  Unfortunately, that was not the case in many states where the rules were bent to facilitate voting.

So I don't want to hear about standing.  I would like to see someone address the violations of law that gave some voters something extra and probably helped Biden.

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