On One CosmosаBob Godwinаably describes the bind the Left finds itself in,

They keep stridently referring to Foley as a 'pervert.' While I certainly agree that he is a pervert, I am quite sure I don't understand why they do. Is it because he is attracted to young men? If that is the case, why is he a pervert, when all normal heterosexual men are just as attracted to young female flesh? Can I get a witness?

And then brings his professional expertise to bear.

Pedophilia specifically revolves around fantasies, urges, or sexual behaviors involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child. Therefore, we can take the charge of pedophilia right off the table.

An interesting aside. A number of years ago, leftist sexual activists put pressure on the American Psychiatric Association to actually change the DSM definition of pedophilia. In the DSM III, it was simply defined as any sexual urges or fantasies toward a prepubescent child. But in the DSM IV, the criteria were changed, so that the diagnosis could only be made if 'the fantasies, urges, or behaviors cause clinically significant distress,' or some kind of impairment in social or occupational functioning. In other words, according to DSM—IV criteria, even if the boy had been underage, so long as Foley was not distressed or conflicted about his behavior, then he is entirely normal. He gets a pass. He is no different than a heterosexual man——say, John Derek——who was attracted to 16 year—old Bo Derek. Now, in my opinion, John Derek may have been an immature man or a lucky man, but he was not a perverted man. Hiyo!

Thomas Lifsonаа 10 02 06